281 B08 PVT A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot A) is cleared to land. B) should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. C) should return for landing. 282 B13 PVT An aircraft�f s annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A) July 1, next year. B) July 13, next year. C) July 31, next year. 283 B08 PVT What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A) Take no special action since you are pilot in command. B) File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested. C) File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible. 284 B07 PVT Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? A) A certificated aircraft mechanic. B) The pilot in command. C) The owner or operator. 285 B07 PVT If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may A) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. B) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. C) not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator. 286 B07 PVT Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A) Only in an emergency. B) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C) If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration. 287 B07 PVT Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during A) takeoffs and landings. B) all flight conditions. C) flight in turbulent air. 288 B08 PVT As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? A) When operating in Class A airspace at night. B) If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions. C) In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. 289 B07 PVT Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures. 290 B07 PVT In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A) review traffic control light signal procedures. B) check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). C) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. 291 B08 PVT Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A) Glider. B) Airship. C) Aircraft refueling other aircraft. 292 B08 PVT What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? A) The faster aircraft shall give way. B) The aircraft on the left shall give way. C) Each aircraft shall give way to the right. 293 B08 PVT A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? A) The motorboat. B) The seaplane. C) Both should alter course to the right. 294 B09 PVT What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? A) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. B) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder. C) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped. 295 B09 PVT A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is A) less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. B) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. C) at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. 296 B11 PVT An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? A) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. B) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL). C) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL). 297 B08 PVT Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions. B) at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR. C) at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR. 298 G11 PVT Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? A) A forced landing due to engine failure. B) Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. C) Flight control system malfunction or failure. 299 G11 PVT If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified A) immediately. B) within 48 hours. C) within 7 days. 300 G13 PVT The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days? A) 5. B) 7. C) 10.

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